Electile Dysfunction (Current students plz look!)

[Apoc]

I wonder if it's still generally true that when voter participation is high, it generally means democrat turnout has increased. GOP turnout is always pretty high.

It's generally well established, with data, that liberal voters are disproportionately impacted when access to polls are restricted. This is due to things like being hourly wage earners, not getting time off to vote that day, are young and not active participants in politics, or a general inability to actually get to the polls due to lower access to cars, etc. 

Republicans are the ones trying to make it harder to vote: https://fivethirtyeight.com/features/the...r-to-vote/

I pass no judgment on intent and you could argue R's merely want to ensure "fair voting" but most studies suggest purposeful disenfranchisement. Unfortunately, 10 seconds of googling didn't get my a study to share.

Even Trump agrees: https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2020...oronavirus

As an anecdote, WA votes by mail and has consistent participation around 80%. It's also voted blue for president and state government for quite awhile.